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Does DNSSEC require that my NS1 and NS2 stored at the registrar be authoritative, or just that they answer for the domain? Can they be non-authoritative DNS servers answer the query?

Does anything specify what happens at that point in time?

From the BIND DNSSEC Guide,

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What happens in the above circumstance if the fbi.gov name server that is written in the ns1 at the registrar is non-authoritative but has all the appropriate records?

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DNSSEC doesn't add any restriction on this, but NS records are supposed to point to authoritative servers.

Authoritative Server A server that knows the content of a DNS zone from local knowledge, and thus can answer queries about that zone without needing to query other servers.

RFC 2182 Section 2

Can they be non-authoritative DNS servers answer the query?

Authoritative servers and resolvers can answer DNSSEC queries as long as the answer they provide has valid DNSSEC records (assuming the client checks)

  • Your quote defines an *"Authoritative Server" but it doesn't say that the NS records are supposed to point to one. – Evan Carroll May 16 at 14:40
  • RFC 1035 states that the RDATA of an NS record should contain A <domain-name> which specifies a host which should be authoritative for the specified class and domain. There are valid cases for a NS record to point to a non authoritative server, but usually this is not what you want. – Torin May 16 at 18:48

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